So, do you mean that the androgyne is used ONLY in dual and plural?
Yes, apologies for the lack of clarity. By definition, the androgyne can only exist in the dual and plural, since it's used for mixed groups of masculine and feminine nouns (so, given the nature of the feminine, groups of men and women and male and female animals).
Some examples using the 1+2 ('you and I') personal pronouns in the absolutive case:
dvyt - 1+2.ABS.DL.M
dvee - 1+2.ABS.DL.F
dveet - 1+2.ABS.DL.ANDR
dvyk - 1+2.ABS.PL.M
dvai - 1+2.ABS.PL.F
dvaik - 1+2.ABS.PL.ANDR
If so, I think it's not a gender. You could just call it the common plural/dual or something.
Or do you have some reasons for defining it a gender, some special derivational limitations or?
I call it a gender because the inflection behaves in an identical way to the feminine inflection (always word-final, supersedes any other inflection for number, exhibits vowel mutation, not counted as a case), so it feels natural to name it as a gender. I could be talked into changing that, however.
When you say 'common', in what sense are you using the word? 'Common' as in 'ordinary'/'standard', or 'common' as in 'belonging equally to multiple groups'?
Sounds nice thisfar.
Thank you. Also, I'm curious. Do you mind if I ask what language your handle originates from? And what's the pronunciation of the y-acute?