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 Post subject: Re: Cangtagx
PostPosted: Fri 09 Mar 2012, 14:57 
darkness
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I like it!

You probably should consider describing the phonology of the tone system in more detail though. There's scope to do all sorts of interesting phonological things with tones!

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 Post subject: Re: Cangtagx
PostPosted: Fri 09 Mar 2012, 15:23 
roman
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Ralph wrote:
I like it!

You probably should consider describing the phonology of the tone system in more detail though. There's scope to do all sorts of interesting phonological things with tones!


For example?
This is my first time doing a conlang with tones, so i don't know much about them.

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 Post subject: Re: Cangtagx
PostPosted: Fri 09 Mar 2012, 15:29 
mayan
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CrazyEttin wrote:
Ralph wrote:
I like it!

You probably should consider describing the phonology of the tone system in more detail though. There's scope to do all sorts of interesting phonological things with tones!


For example?
This is my first time doing a conlang with tones, so i don't know much about them.

Well, a lot of tone languages have lots and lots of tone sandhi, so you could do something with that. A lot of tonal languages have weird phonations. It seems to be very common for a low or falling tone to be realized as creaky voice.

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 Post subject: Re: Cangtagx
PostPosted: Fri 09 Mar 2012, 15:40 
darkness
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CrazyEttin wrote:
Ralph wrote:
I like it!

You probably should consider describing the phonology of the tone system in more detail though. There's scope to do all sorts of interesting phonological things with tones!


For example?
This is my first time doing a conlang with tones, so i don't know much about them.


Also, from what I've learnt about tones in phonology, there's a rule that the underlying representation of the word can't have two of the same tone adjacent, although tones can be attached to multiple syllables in a row. (So, for example, something like [táká] would have one high tone attached to both syllables.) [That's called the Obligatory Contour Principle if you want to look it up.] This means interesting things can happen when you add an affix of the same tone as its base (for example, in Shona, a stem with a high tone changes it to a low tone if you add a prefix with a high tone).

Tones apparently also have a habit of moving around: in Somali, for example, you can't have a high tone at the end of a phrase, so it gets moved to the penultimate syllable if a syllable with a high tone ends up in phrase final position.

One thing to think about as well is that the phonological theory of tones I'm familiar with analyses them as on a separate 'tier' of the representation of the word, so that the string of tones is separate from the other segments of the word underlyingly, and is then linked to appropriate tone bearing units in the surface form.

Edit: A bit of further reading suggests that the Obligatory Contour Principle isn't necessarily universal (Shona, for example, doesn't seem to have a problem with multiple adjacent low tones, given changes a high tone to a low one doesn't seem to have any effect on a following low tone [although it could just merge with the later low tone, given this is another way languages can deal with two adjacent tones of the same time]).

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 Post subject: Re: Cangtagx
PostPosted: Sat 10 Mar 2012, 13:37 
roman
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Version 0.1!

Added the obligatory contour principle to the phonology, but kept the tone system otherwise very simple. Not really any other changes.

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Last edited by CrazyEttin on Wed 18 Apr 2012, 12:12, edited 2 times in total.

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 Post subject: Re: Cangtagx
PostPosted: Sat 10 Mar 2012, 14:56 
darkness
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CrazyEttin wrote:
Version 0.1!

Added the obligatory contour principle to the phonology, but kept the tone system otherwise very simple. Not really any other changes.


Cool! Glad to have been able to offer some useful feedback [:)]

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagx
PostPosted: Tue 10 Apr 2012, 19:18 
fire
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Two mid tones can occur consecutively in a single word, right?
...
If you suffix a high-tone suffix onto a high-tone-ending base, why do you change the suffix's tone to low instead of to mid?
If you suffix a low-tone suffix onto a low-tone-ending base, why do you change the suffix's tone to high instead of to mid?
If you prefix a high-tone prefix onto a high-tone-beginning base, why do you change the prefix's tone to low instead of to mid?
etc.
...
Why did you choose to change the suffix's tone rather than move the base's ending tone earlier into the base? Similarly, why did you choose to change the prefix's tone rather than move the base's initial tone later into the base?
...
I am not saying the choices you made are unnaturalistic nor unrealistic; far from it! I'm only asking why you made the decisions you did make. Your reasons may have been purely aesthetic.
Spoiler: show
(What would the opposite kind of reason be? Anaesthetic?)

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagx
PostPosted: Tue 10 Apr 2012, 19:21 
cleardarkness
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Quote:
(What would the opposite kind of reason be? Anaesthetic?)

unaesthetic

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagx
PostPosted: Tue 10 Apr 2012, 19:48 
roman
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eldin raigmore wrote:
Two mid tones can occur consecutively in a single word, right?
...
If you suffix a high-tone suffix onto a high-tone-ending base, why do you change the suffix's tone to low instead of to mid?
If you suffix a low-tone suffix onto a low-tone-ending base, why do you change the suffix's tone to high instead of to mid?
If you prefix a high-tone prefix onto a high-tone-beginning base, why do you change the prefix's tone to low instead of to mid?
etc.


Because if there are two endings, eg. -ang and -áng, they would be identical if -áng changed to -ang instead of -àng when following a high tone.

eldin raigmore wrote:
Why did you choose to change the suffix's tone rather than move the base's ending tone earlier into the base? Similarly, why did you choose to change the prefix's tone rather than move the base's initial tone later into the base?


Because the tone is phonemic, so moving it around would create serious confusion. The changing of tone from low to high or high to low in endings and prefixes doesn't create confusion, since only two tones contrast in those (Eg. you can have -ang and either -áng or àng, but never all of the three).

eldin raigmore wrote:
I am not saying the choices you made are unnaturalistic nor unrealistic; far from it! I'm only asking why you made the decisions you did make. Your reasons may have been purely aesthetic.
Spoiler: show
(What would the opposite kind of reason be? Anaesthetic?)


Actually my reasons were mostly to keep the system simple, since i've never created a tonal conlang before. In the next version of the lang, which i'm currently working on, i'm simplifying it even more into a pitch accent system.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagx
PostPosted: Tue 10 Apr 2012, 20:31 
mayan
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That's a nice lang, phonology is silly but it's meant to be.
Expressing grammatical meanings by tones is a nice idea I have been planning to employ, too.
Have yoy got acquainted with Nilo-Saharan languages. I've heared they are crazy.

- How is your vowel allophony? Are /r/ and /v/ allophones of the closed vowel?
Does /a/ have any allophony?

- You said you are scrapping the tone system, but I still ask about your 0.1 version: how is the stress realised? Normally it is the tone that makes a syllable stressed. Your stress system is by the way very Finnish-y (my all langs have that).

-The plural marker was a line above something. What does it represent?


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 Post subject: Re: Changtagx
PostPosted: Tue 10 Apr 2012, 21:38 
roman
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Omzinesý wrote:
That's a nice lang, phonology is silly but it's meant to be.
Expressing grammatical meanings by tones is a nice idea I have been planning to employ, too.
Have yoy got acquainted with Nilo-Saharan languages. I've heared they are crazy.


The only thing i know about them is that they're crazy. [:D]

Omzinesý wrote:
- How is your vowel allophony? Are /r/ and /v/ allophones of the closed vowel?
Does /a/ have any allophony?


Yes, [ɹ] & [β] are allophones of /ɰ/ (Or /ɯ/, if you prefer). /ɑ/ has no allophony.

Omzinesý wrote:
- You said you are scrapping the tone system, but I still ask about your 0.1 version: how is the stress realised? Normally it is the tone that makes a syllable stressed. Your stress system is by the way very Finnish-y (my all langs have that).


The stress is realised as a dynamic accent. And yes, it's very finnish-y, i tried to avoid phonemic stress to keep the phonology ridiculously minimal, and first syllable just seems a good "default" position for the stress.

Omzinesý wrote:
-The plural marker was a line above something. What does it represent?


Lengthening of the syllable nucleus.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagx
PostPosted: Fri 13 Apr 2012, 02:37 
fire
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Thanks, CrazyEttin.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagxmta
PostPosted: Wed 18 Apr 2012, 12:15 
roman
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And Version 1 is finally here!

Why Version 1 instead of Version 0.2, you might ask.
Simple. I change major version number every time i have to scrap the whole vocabulary because of changes in the language.

...And yes, i will complete the parts about indefinite pronouns and subordinate clauses when i'm not so busy studying (=Trying to avoid studying).

Constructive criticism is very welcome.

Edit: Yes, there's a typo on the first example sentence of the Verbs and Syntax chapter: It should be x-X́ng-a instead of x-X̄xng-a.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagxmta
PostPosted: Wed 18 Apr 2012, 15:32 
fire
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What does
Quote:
Root morphemes contain the only true free morphemes of the language, the conjunctions.
mean?
Does this mean all conjunctions are roots, or does it mean all roots are conjunctions?


What does
Quote:
Ablative is also used as instrumental, and it's never used on nouns. It's marked with adding coda -m to the noun suffix.
Lative, also used for indirect objects, is also never used on nouns. It's marked with adding coda -ng to the noun suffix.
mean?
How can something that's never marked on nouns, be marked by adding something to the noun suffix?

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagxmta
PostPosted: Wed 18 Apr 2012, 19:34 
roman
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eldin raigmore wrote:
What does
Quote:
Root morphemes contain the only true free morphemes of the language, the conjunctions.
mean?
Does this mean all conjunctions are roots, or does it mean all roots are conjunctions?


Group "Root morphemes" contains the group "Free morphemes" which is identical to the group "Conjunctions".

eldin raigmore wrote:
What does
Quote:
Ablative is also used as instrumental, and it's never used on nouns. It's marked with adding coda -m to the noun suffix.
Lative, also used for indirect objects, is also never used on nouns. It's marked with adding coda -ng to the noun suffix.
mean?
How can something that's never marked on nouns, be marked by adding something to the noun suffix?


What i meant with that is that since adverbs and adjectives are fully interchangeable, and word in absolutive, when used as modifiers, can modify both nouns (As genitive) and verbs (As locative), i wanted to say that ablative and lative can only modify verbs, and using them to modify nouns would just be ungrammatical. Now that you pointed it out, i see that i worded that very poorly in the pdf, sorry.

Edit: Eg. «Chángtagxmta Antrgxntam» (Speech from Anticosti Island) would make no sense, but both «Chángtagxmta Antrgxnta» (Speech of Anticosti Island) and «Thrnta xGángtagx Antrgxntam» (I speak from Anticosti Island) are grammatically correct.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagxmta
PostPosted: Wed 18 Apr 2012, 20:25 
mayan
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Where is the phone(me) inventary table?
How does your assimilating "vowel" assimilate to the glottal stop?

Why do you say your syllabic nucleus is not a vowel (the not vowel one)?
ɰ, ɯ are the same sound. It's just about the position in the syllable. ɯ is a coda, and ɰ is an onset. I can be wrong.


Because you are making an odd phonology, I can't help suggesting the bilarial trill /ʙ/ (the horse stopping sound). It could be allophonic variation too, with [r] maybe.


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 Post subject: Re: Changtagxmta
PostPosted: Thu 19 Apr 2012, 08:01 
roman
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Omzinesý wrote:
Where is the phone(me) inventary table?
How does your assimilating "vowel" assimilate to the glottal stop?


There isn't a phoneme inventory table, everything is in the text of the phonology chapter.
The syllabic consonant doesn't assimilate to the glottal stop, it's just [ʔɰ]. It's the only exception to that rule.

Omzinesý wrote:
Why do you say your syllabic nucleus is not a vowel (the not vowel one)?
ɰ, ɯ are the same sound. It's just about the position in the syllable. ɯ is a coda, and ɰ is an onset. I can be wrong.


I know, but since every other allophone of that phoneme is written in IPA with a "consonant letter", i thought it would look better if i used ɰ.

Omzinesý wrote:
Because you are making an odd phonology, I can't help suggesting the bilarial trill /ʙ/ (the horse stopping sound). It could be allophonic variation too, with [r] maybe.


No, there's enough allophony as it is. [:D]
Also, for some weird reason trill consonants are extremely hard for me to pronounce, and i like to be able to pronounce my conlangs.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagxmta
PostPosted: Thu 19 Apr 2012, 10:24 
MVP
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Omzinesý wrote:

Why do you say your syllabic nucleus is not a vowel (the not vowel one)?
ɰ, ɯ are the same sound. It's just about the position in the syllable. ɯ is a coda, and ɰ is an onset. I can be wrong.


You *can* be wrong, but not necessarily. According to the well-known online encyclopaedia, it may depend on the language:

Quote:
Semivowels, by definition, contrast with vowels by being non-syllabic. In addition, they are usually shorter than vowels.[2] In languages as diverse as Amharic, Yoruba, and Zuni, semivowels are produced with a narrower constriction in the vocal tract than their corresponding vowels.[5] Nevertheless, semivowels may be phonemically equivalent with vowels.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagxmta
PostPosted: Wed 23 May 2012, 00:07 
roman
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Made a script for Chángtagxmta:

Example
Font

The script is based on latin alphabet, modified to better suit carving on stone and wood, the primary writing media of the Antregabua, and it's used only very rarely when writing on paper or other media.

And yes, i consider this a form of latin alphabet. If blackletter counts as latin, then this one definitely counts too.

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 Post subject: Re: Changtagx
PostPosted: Wed 23 May 2012, 07:42 
darkness
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CrazyEttin wrote:
Omzinesý wrote:
That's a nice lang, phonology is silly but it's meant to be.
Expressing grammatical meanings by tones is a nice idea I have been planning to employ, too.
Have yoy got acquainted with Nilo-Saharan languages. I've heared they are crazy.

The only thing i know about them is that they're crazy. [:D]
What about a grammar of one?


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