Helios wrote:
@Ominsezy<j> is /ɟ/ to conserve space.
Um. The person who asked about that was me, not Omnizesý... Anyway, whether or not Gothic had a phonemic /ɟ/ is far from clear. In any case it would always be a long [ɟ:], so spelling it with a single letter seems counterintuitive, IMO.
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<y> is /j/ because most languages use that letter for /j/, only slavic, uralic, germanic, and some romance languages don't use it as /j/ [if it's used at all]
...and Guaraní, Welsh, Albanian, Lithuanian, Malagasy and Turkmen, just to name a few examples from Wikipedia. Also, what Avo said. Gothic is a Germanic language, so when spelling it in the Latin alphabet, I'd use Germanic-looking spelling conventions. In addition, there's the thing that the Gothic letter winja (which I apparently can't post on this board without getting an SQL error, but see
here) was apparently sometimes used to transcribe /y/ in Greek loans; IMO, it would make sense to reserve <y> for transliterating that.
Although really, if I were to design a modernized orthography for Gothic, I'd probably use the Greek alphabet. The Latin is rather boring, and the original Gothic script was primarily based on Greek anyway.
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@Trailsend I merged masculine and feminine
Again, that was me. Trailsend hasn't even posted in this thread.
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A) gender in a language is sexist
Not this again.

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B) gender in a language has halfway been proven to limit your understanding on the concept of actual gender
What? When, where, by whom?
![:| [:|]](./images/smilies/icon_neutral2.png)
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C) it makes the language easier to learn
Arguably, yes. However, anyone who's a language geek enough to be interested in learning Gothic probably won't care too much about it being "easy"; "historically accurate" would probably rate a lot higher.
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D) most forms were getting repetitive, and often were too similar to the neutral.
If there's evidence that the masculine and feminine were already starting to merge in fourth-century Gothic, then I suppose you could have some kind of case for merging them.