That this claim that Finnish /ð/~/d/ is a remarkable enough phoneme to only be explainable by Swedish influence...
I never claimed it; don't put words in my mouth! What I said (or, actually quoted) was (1) that /d/ appeared in Finnish due to Swedish influence, and (2) that it is quite an odd phoneme in Finnish phonology. I never made any connection between the two phenomena. By the way, at least the first one is supported by researchers.
(BTW, the fact that some dialects of Swedish have d/t at different poas works the opposite way in those dialects, so that doesn't help much either in arguing that ð could only have become a phoneme under Swedish influence.
Once again, I never said it was only
because of foreign influence; this is, however, a widespread opinion. Do you want to write a letter to the authors of the book I was quoting from?
My point is: you're using a worthless methodology to prop up the case for a specific effect Swedish, in your claim, has had on Finnish.
I don't use any methodology; I'm not a researcher. I read an article, was convinced by it, and shared my thoughts here. Any problems?
Why be so persistent in claiming something like that?
If you don't care for my opinions, don't respond to my messages.