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КЕРВЕНСКИЙ

In my conlang there is no morphological distinction between adjectives and adverbs. So, my question is, how to call a word that is both an adjective and an adverb?

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UNUS•ET•UNICUS

An adjective.

Nah, there must be something more interesting! Qualifier, maybe?

Hmm... What does cat+adverbial-case mean? "In a cat-like manner"? I don't think there is such a thing, cause it's just an adverb that way.

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UNUS•ET•UNICUS

Yes.

There are also natlangs with an adverbial case.

I've always heard it called a modifier. Because it modifies.

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Native | Almost Fluent | Intermediate | Interested | Very interested.

I am looking for any and all relevant information to the Ancient Egyptian language. Scholarly/Academic is preferable, please.

Thank you.

I also accept PM's.

Here you go:
Demotic Egyptian Guide
Historical Dictionary of Ancient Egypt
Conjunction, Contiguity, Contingency: On Relationships between Events in the Egyptian and Coptic Verbal Systems
A Concise Dictionary of Middle Egyptian
Middle Egyptian: An Introduction to the Language and Culture of Hieroglyphs
Password: uztranslations

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UNUS•ET•UNICUS

About possession. On Wikipedia it says that "The Yabem language of Papua New Guinea, for instance, distinguishes alienable from inalienable possession when the possessor is human, but distinguishes inherent from non-inherent possession when the 'possessor' is not human." What is this inherent vs. non-inherent possession, and how it differs from alienable vs. inalienable?

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UNUS•ET•UNICUS

Alienable vs. inalienable (A-I) possession depends on whether the possessed item will stay possessed by the possessor or will later be somehow unpossessed.

Inherent vs. non-inherent (I-NI) possession depends on whether the possessed item is a part of the possessor or not.

Take the sentence "I will have my dog forever." If you are distinguishing between A-I, "my dog" would probably be inalienable, since the sentence is trying to convey how the dog will never be away from you, and thus be inalienable.

But if you are distinguishing between I-NI, "my dog" would probably be non-inherent, as the dog is not inherently a part of you. If you had the sentence "I petted the dog with my hand", "my hand" would be inherent, as a hand is inherently a part of the speaker's body (assuming that the speaker has hands, of course).

You could say A-I depends on whether or not the possessed item will not be there in the future, whereas I-NI depends on whether or not the possessed item was there since the beginning.

What Proto-Indo-European root would Sanskrit vāṭa derive from?

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I could be completely wrong about this and it's just a guess but could it possibly come from *worto/eh2-. It's the o-grade form of *wr.to/eh2 which Sanskrit v.rti (enclosure) comes from and since vāṭa also means "enclosure", at least according to Wiktionary, it seems possible. IIRC the regular outcome (*rt becoming a retroflex ṭ and the first *o merging into *a: in the new open syllable) but again, I could be wrong. I'm not great with Sanskrit-related stuff.

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You can tell the same lie a thousand times,
But it never gets any more true,
So close your eyes once more and once more believe
That they all still believe in you.
Just one time.

'k. It's a start. Thanks.

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Is there an example of a language that had definite article, but it fell out of use?

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UNUS•ET•UNICUS

Is there a European language which has uvular stops?

No.

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Wrong.

Firstly, which languages are considered "European"?

Chechen has /q/.

Wrong again. Isn't that just the easiest thing to do? Buy a geography book.

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If you consider Chechnya to be in Europe ((most people do) Southeast to be exact), then you answered the question "Is there a European language which has uvular stops?" incorrectly.

Accept it and move on.

And I don't. So I didn't. So suck it.

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Up in blue sky silly blimp goes by
Where it come from where it go
Ziggy-Zaggy it fly high