Queen Ranavalona I (conclusive historical proof that obscene violence is far from an exclusively male preserve) would also be an interesting one to see from a long way away (ideally a different continent).
Thanks for telling me about her! I'd never heard of her until your post. Now I've read Wikipedia's entry about her. She was interesting!
Joab (David's sister's son)
Well, if we're going for fictional
characters, that changes the game completely.
Uhtred of Bebbanburg.
Thomas Theismann, Javier Giscard, and Lester Tourville.
The list goes on...
No, I think if we allow fictional characters, the game is no longer interesting.
I regard the "history" books of the Hebrew Bible as actual history.
True, up through Joshua, Judges, and Ruth, (and possibly also at least some of I Samuel), it's possibly legendary. (For purposes of this post I define "legend" as a story based on the truth that, for at least some part of its life-cycle, was communicated solely mouth-to-ear rather than hand-to-eye. Legends are therefore more vulnerable to mutation than histories that were always written, starting with eye-witnesses; because "the palest ink is stronger than the strongest memory".)
And a lot of it may also be myth. (For purposes of this post I define "myth" as a story that explains something culturally important, such as the name of a certain thing, or why a certain holiday is observed, or how a certain saying came to be. I don't think either legends or myths have to be false.)
Nevertheless, I think II Samuel, I Kings, II Kings, I Chronicles, and II Chronicles, should count as "history"; so Joab should count as a historical character. The parts of I Samuel having to do with Saul are probably also historical. And the story of Ruth the Moabitess was probably a family legend in Jesse's family.
... does 'come' work as a double-entendre in Latin,
Not as far as I know.
or is it just a fortuitous coincidence when used with English?
As far as I know, it is.
Do/did Latin verbs have gender, though?
I don't think so. But I don't know Latin all that well.
Latin verbal adjectives, such as gerundives and passive participles and active participles, probably agree with the gender of the nouns they modify, don't they? Wouldn't "Amanda" necessarily be feminine?