Thakow's pronunciations is roughly what I expected to be typical US pronunciations.
Iran /ɪ'ɹɑn ~ ɑi'ɹæn/ˈ
Iraq /ɪ'ɹɑkʰ ~ ɑi'ɹækʰ/
Could /ɪˈɹæn and /ɪˈɹækʰ/ be viable options?
What factors do you think could be involved in the choice between /æ/ and /ɑ/ in different -lects?
One factor that's often been mentioned is the different phonetic qualities of /æ/ and /ɑ/ in different dialects. This website
mentions that as a possible explanation for the differences between Canadian and US English in this respect. Many US dialects have a raised or tensed /æ/. In some dialects it may be the case in all environments. In others, it may be conditioned, and in yet others, it has led to a phonemic split. Correspondingly, many US dialect have an /ɑ/ that is shorter and slightly more advanced than in f.ex. British English. These factors may work together to make /ɑ/ the most suitable match for the 'foreign a'.
Conversely, other English dialects may have an /æ/ that are phonetically more open, more like [a], or at least close thereto. This may be the case in many British dialects, for many Canadians, and even for some dialects in the US.
If there is a variation in your dialect, is one pronunciation regarded as more 'correct', or as having higher prestige, than the other? I Think I've heard people claiming that this could be the case in the US - that people think that '/æ/ for <a> is an Englishy pronunciation, avoid it in foreign words'.
Does the presence or absence of BATH-broadening affect the pronunciation of foreign a's? It could be the case, that if a dialect has a larger amount of native words (which may include older, established borrowings) where <a> = [ɑ(ː)], this pronunciation does not have the same 'foreign' flavour as it has in a dialect without BATH-broadening?