Final letters in Hebrew have nothing to do with pronunciation or grammatical function.
And I suggested this when?
When you keep saying what I am talking about has something to do with grammar and not with capitalization - the phenomena I describe is much more similar to capitalization that you like to admit.
Here's some instances of you saying exactly this:
"not a variation on form for pronunciation or grammatical function."
"If you mean that the letters change to indicate some semantic or grammatical function, then yes, they are quite similar." <- yes, but that's not what happens so why bring it up? Also, letters do capitalize in some languages to mark grammatical / semantic things, look at fucking GERMAN! Look at how English capitalizes things, it tends to be for quite clearly semantic reasons.
Get that? Nor in Arabic
Well, I guess you and I see grammatical function as two very different things.
In Hebrew, "word-final" is the trigger. Not grammar. NOT GRAMMAR.
Again, I never said this for Hebrew.
Funny, as Hebrew and Arabic are the only two languages I used as fucking examples. Cute.